Đề cương ôn tập Tiếng Anh Lớp 12 (Lần 2) - Trường THPT Mỹ Lộc
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ĐỀ ÔN TẬP TIẾNG ANH 12 – Lần 2 1. PRACTICE 1 PART A: PHONETICS Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the pronunciation of the underlined words in each of the following questions. 1. A. volunteer B. positionC. community D. introduce 2. A. domestic B. eliminate C. encourage D. equality Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions. 3. A. aware B. addressC. access D. affect 4. A. documentary B. politician C. popularity D. laboratory PART B: LEXICO- GRAMMAR Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to the following questions. 5. I think that up to now there has not been a real ________ between men and women. A. equal B. equally C. equality D. equalize 6. Of the two new secretaries, one is competent and ____ is not. A. another B. other C. the other D. the second 7. Air pollution, the greenhouse effect and global warming ___________ a negative impact on the environment. A. have B. make C. do D. take 8. _________, he remained optimistic. A. As he was badly woundedB. Badly wounded as he was C. Though badly wounded he was D. As badly wounded he was 9. There ______________ a child and three women in the car when the bomb ____________ off. A. were / went B. was / went C. was / was going D. had been / went 10. The police _______ a good deal of criticism over their handling of the demonstration. A. came in for B. got through to C. came down with D. went in for 11. When a fire broke out in the Louvre, at least twenty ______ paintings were destroyed, including two by Picasso. A. worthlessB. priceless C. valueless D. useless 12. Has he made ______ her after their quarrel yet? A. up forB. up with C. off with D. up of 13. The thieves ___________ in because the front door was open so they just walked in. A. can’t have broken B. needn’t have broken C. didn’t need to break D. shouldn’t have broken 14. ___________ you to be offered that job, you would have to move to another city. A. Provided that B. ShouldC. Were D. Had 15. My new glasses cost me _______ the pair I bought last month. A. more than three times B. three times as much as C. more three times than D. as much three times as 16. “Why are you in such a hurry?” “The librarian said it was important that I ______ this book immediately.” A. returned B. was returning C. had returnedD. return Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges 17. John and Tony are on the way home. John is inviting Tony to have lunch at his house this Saturday. Select the most suitable response to fill in the blank: John: “I'm having some friends over for lunch this Saturday. Would you like to join us?” - Tony: “_______” A. Can I take a rain check? B. Come on. It's your turn. C. Thanks, but I mustn't. D. As a matter of fact, I do. 18. Linda attended Michael’s enjoyable birthday party last Sunday and thanked him for it. Select the most suitable response to fill in the blank: Linda: “It was very kind of you to invite us to your party.” - Michael: “__________.” A. It’s my pleasure B. No, thanks C. Ok, that’s’ great D. Good idea, thanks Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction. 19. The researcher mixed the (A) two ingredients, poured the (B) mixture into a petri dish, (C) draw out a measured amount, and carefully applied it (D) to another dish. 20. Hawaii has (A) such many amazing (B) beaches that everyone (C) wants to live (D) there. 21. She is one of five women (A) to win the award (B) for devoting her whole life (C) for (D) looking after the poor. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 22. It was inevitable that the smaller company should merge with the larger one. A. urgent B. unavoidable C. unnecessaryD. vital 23. Their migration may be halted if fog, clouds, or rain hides the stars. A. postponed B. spoiled C. stopped D. endangered Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 24. The club meet on the last Thursday of every month in a dilapidated palace. A. neglected B. regenerated C. furnishedD. renovated 25. The use of lasers in surgery has become relatively commonplace in recent years. A. absolutely B. relevantly C. virtually D. comparatively PART C: READING Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 41 to 50. Few people now question for the reality if global warming and its effects on the world’s climate. Many scientists (26)________ the blame for recent natural disasters on the increase in the world’s temperatures and are convinced that , more than ever before, the Earth is at (27) ______ from the force of the wind, rain and sun. According to them, global warming is making extreme weather events, such as hurricanes and droughts, even more (28)_ and causing sea levels all around the world to (29)_____ . Environmental groups are putting pressure on governments to take action to reduce the amount of carbon dioxide which is given off by factories and power plants, thus attacking the problem at its source. They are in favour of more money being spent on research into solar, wind and wave energy devices, which could then replace existing power stations. Some scientists, (50)__, believe that even if we stopped releasing carbon dioxide and other gases into the atmosphere tomorrow, we would have to wait several hundred years to notice the results. Global warming , it seems, is to stay. 26. A. giveB. put C. take D. have 27. A. threat B. dangerC. risk D. harm 28. A. strike B. strongC. severe D. heavy 29. A. raise B. arise C. liftD. rise 30. A. becauseB. however C. despite D. although Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word for each of the blanks from 51 to 60. For many people who live in cities, parks are an important part of the landscape. They provide a place for people to relax and play sports, as well as a refuge from the often harsh environment of a city. What people often overlook is that parks also provide considerable environmental benefits. One benefit of parks is that plants absorb carbon dioxide—a key pollutant—and emit oxygen, which humans need to breathe. According to one study, an acre of trees can absorb the same amount of carbon dioxide that a typical car emits in 11,000 miles of driving. Parks also make cities cooler. Scientists have long noted what is called the Urban Heat Island Effect: building materials such as metal, concrete, and asphalt absorb much more of the sun’s heat and release it much more quickly than organic surfaces like trees and grass. Because city landscapes contain so much of these building materials, cities are usually warmer than surrounding rural areas. Parks and other green spaces help to mitigate the Urban Heat Island Effect. Unfortunately, many cities cannot easily create more parks because most land is already being used for buildings, roads, parking lots, and other essential parts of the urban environment. However, cities could benefit from many of the positive effects of parks by encouraging citizens to create another type of green space: rooftop gardens. While most people would not think of starting a garden on their roof, human beings have been planting gardens on rooftops for thousands of years. Some rooftop gardens are very complex and require complicated engineering, but others are simple container gardens that anyone can create with the investment of a few hundred dollars and a few hours of work. Rooftop gardens provide many of the same benefits as other urban park and garden spaces, but without taking up the much-needed land. Like parks, rooftop gardens help to replace carbon dioxide in the air with nourishing oxygen. They also help to lessen the Urban Heat Island Effect, which can save people money. In the summer, rooftop gardens prevent buildings from absorbing heat from the sun, which can significantly reduce cooling bills. In the winter, gardens help hold in the heat that materials like brick and concrete radiate so quickly, leading to savings on heating bills. Rooftop vegetable and herb gardens can also provide fresh food for city dwellers, saving them money and making their diets healthier. Rooftop gardens are not only something everyone can enjoy, they are also a smart environmental investment. 31: Based on its use in paragraph 2, it can be inferred that mitigate belongs to which of the following word groups? A. exacerbate, aggravate, intensify B. obliterate, destroy, annihilate C. allay, alleviate, reduce D. absorb, intake, consume 32: Using the information in paragraph 2 as a guide, it can be inferred that _______. A. cities with rooftop gardens are cooler than those without rooftop gardens B. some plants are not suitable for growth in rooftop gardens C. most people prefer parks to rooftop gardens D. most people prefer life in the country over life in the city 33: Based on the information in paragraph 3, which of the following best describes the main difference between parks and rooftop gardens? A. Parks are expensive to create while rooftop gardens are not. B. Parks are public while rooftop gardens are private. C. Parks absorb heat while rooftop gardens do not. D. Parks require much space while rooftop gardens do not. 34: The author claims all of the following to be the benefits of rooftop gardens except _______. A. increased space for private relaxation B. savings on heating and cooling costs C. better food for city dwellers D. improved air quality 35: According to the author, one advantage that rooftop gardens have over parks is that they _______. A. decrease the Urban Heat Island Effect B. replenish the air with nourishing oxygen C. do not require the use of valuable urban land D. are less expensive than traditional park spaces 36: The author’s tone in the passage is best described as _______ A. descriptive B. passionateC. informative D. argumentative 37: It can be inferred from the passage that the author would most likely endorse a program that _______. A. permitted the construction of buildings in city park land provided they have rooftop gardens B. extended discounts on plants to customers who use them to create rooftop gardens C. offered free admission to schools willing to take their students on field trips to the city park D. promised vacation getaways to cooler destinations for those trapped in the city at the peak of summer 38. According to the passage, the Urban Heat Island Effect is caused by the fact(s) that ________________ A. cities are warmer than nearby rural areas B. building materials absorb more of the sun’s heat than organic surfaces C. building materials release the sun’s heat more quickly than organic surfaces A. B and C B. A and B C. A D. A, B, and C Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 61 to 70. The White House, the official home of the United States president, was not built in time for George Washington to live in it. It was begun in 1792 and was ready for its first inhabitants. President and Mrs. John Adams, who moved in on November 1, 1800. When the Adams’s moved in, the White House was not yet complete, and the Adams’s suffered many inconveniences; for example, the main staircase was incomplete, which hindered movement from floor to floor, and the future laundry yard was merely a pool of mud, so wet laundry was hung in the unfinished East Room to dry. Thomas Jefferson, the third president, improved the comfort of the White House in many respects and added new architectural features such as the terraces on the east and west ends. When the British forces burned the White House on August 24, 1814, President Madison was forced to leave. All the remained after the fire was the exterior walls, the interior was completely destroyed. It was not until December of 1817 that the following president, James Monroe, was able to move into a rebuilt residence. Since then, the White House has continued to be modified but has been continuously occupied by each succeeding U.S president. 39 : Which of the following would be the most appropriate title for this text? A. George Washington’s life in the White House. B. The Early History of the White House. C. The burning of the White House. D. Presidential Policies of Early U.S. Presidents. 40: The word “ inhabitants” in paragraph 1 is closest meaning to_____________ A. modifications B. moves C. celebrations D. residents 41: It can be inferred from the passage that John Adams was_____________ A. the first president of the United States. B. the second president of the United States. C. the third president of the United States. D. the fourth president of the United States. 42: What of the White House was not yet complete when the Adams’s moved in? A. main staircase B. laundry yard C. pool D. A and B 43: The author most likely discusses the “ staircase” in paragraph 1 in order to _______________ A. show the elegance of the new White House B. explain the architectural features added by Jefferson. C. provide an example of an inconvenience in the White House. D. demonstrate what had to be rebuilt after the fire. 44: According to the passage, when James Monroe came to the White House, it had been_____________ A. repressed B. reconstructed C. relocated D. reserved 45: The paragraph following the passage most likely discusses: A. the details of the destruction of the White House by the British. B. James Monroe’s policies as presidents. C. modifications by presidents who followed. D. other presidents who were unable to occupy the White House. PART D: WRITING Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. 46. She said, “John, I’ll show you round my city when you’re here.” A. She made a trip round her city with John. B. She promised to show John round her city. C. She planned to show John round her city. D. She organized a trip round her city for John. 47. It was a mistake for her to marry Peter. A. She and Peter weren’t married in the right way. B. She shouldn’t have married Peter. C. Peter didn’t want to get married, so it was his mistake. D. She ought to think again before she marries Peter. 48. People say that he did it for his own sake. A. He is said to do it for his own sake. B. He is said that he did it for his own sake. C. He is said to have done it for his own sake. D. It is said to do it for his own sake. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. 49. The man is my father. I respect his opinions most. A. The man whose opinions I respect most is my father. B. The man is my father the opinions of whom I respect most. C. The man I respect whose opinions most is my father. D. The man, whose opinions I respect most, is my father. 50. Harry broke his leg. He also injured his shoulder. A. Harry not only broke his leg but he also injured his shoulder. B. Not only Harry broke his leg but also injured his shoulder. C. Not only did Harry break his leg but he also injured his shoulder. D. Harry not only broke his leg but injured his shoulder. ------------- THE END ------------- 2. PRACTICE 2 Which word has the different stress from the rest? 1. A. polite B. walking C. keenness D. signal 2. A. carefully B. physical C. September D. general 3. A. application B. mathematics C. university D. secondary Which word has the underlined part pronounced differently from the rest? 4. A. amazing B. vacancy C. state D. campus 5. A. divide B. primary C. service D. science Choose the word - A, B, C or D - that best fits each blank in the following passage. If you want to do your best in an exam, you should be relaxed and so one of the best things to do is to take regular (6)_____ even if they are only for a few minutes. During revision time, you (7)_____ take some time off to go for a walk or play your favorite sport. It is a mistake to take up all physical activities. Exercise can help you to relax. You should (8)_____ at least twenty minutes doing something different every day. Parents don’t like it when their children spend (9)_____ on the phone, but in fact, chatting to a friend is very good for you but parents think that children are (10) _____ time and money; but research says talking to friends gives you a chance to relax,and this will make the time you spend studying more efective. 6. A. trips B. pauses C. holidays D. breaks 7. A. shall B. should C. have D. will 8. A. use B. relax C. spend D. waste 9. A. seconds B. times C. days D. hours 10. A. losing B. spending C. missing D. wasting Choose the word or phrase - A, B, C or D - that needs correcting for the sentence to be correct 11. He hardly never says anything at the local meeting. A B C D 12. Air pollution, together with littering, are causing many problems in our large, industrial cities today. A B C D 13. The bridge, building just last year, is now in bad condition. A B C D Choose the sentence (A, B, C or D)that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. 14. 'Sorry madam, looking after the garden is not my duty.' A. He promised to look after the garden. B. He apologized for not looking after the garden. C. He asked me if looking after the garden was his duty. D. He said that he was not responsible for looking after the garden. 15. It is said that Galileo invented the telescope. A. Galileo said that the telescope was invented by him B. The telescope is said to have been invented by Galileo C. People say that the telescope was invented by Galileo D. Galileo is said to have invented the telescope 16. The students have to learn many words. They are very difficult A. The students who are very difficult have to learn many words. B. The students being very difficult have to learn many words. C. The students have to learn many words which are very difficult D. The students whom have to learn many words being very difficult. Choose the best option to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word (s) in each of the following questions. 17. The research, contrary to common belief, revealed some rather unexpected results. A. impressive B. surprising C. predictable D. positive 18. The headmaster advised that all the students should attend the class regularly. A. freely B. unusually C. commonly D. completely Choose the best option to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word (s) in each of the following questions. 19. The wonderful diversity of our region’s wildlife is now coming under threat. A. shortage B. shortcoming C. variety D. advantage 20. Why are you making fun of her? Anyone can make a mistake. A. laughing at B. fooling C. pulling her leg D. making her funny Read the passage and choose the best answers. World Wildlife Fund (WWF) safeguards hundreds of species around the world, but we focus species attention on our flagship species: giant pandas, tigers, endangered whales and dolphins, rhinos, elephant, marine turtles and great apes. These species not only need species measures and extra protection in order to survive, they also serve as “umbrella” species: helping them helps numerous other species that live in the same habitats. In addition to our flagship animals, we work to protect numerous species in peril around the world that live within our priority eco-rigions. Laree predators like snow leopards and grizzly bears, migratory species like whooping cranes and songbrids, and a host of other species facing threats also benefit from WWF’ s conservation efforts. Our wildlife trade experts at “traffic” work to ensure that trade wildlife products, doesn’t harm a species, while also fighting against illegal and unsustainable trade. WWF is known for acting sound science. Science leads and guides us strategies and approaches, from the way to restore tigers in viable, breed population to decide which areas need protection the most. [predator: carnivore] 21.What does WWF stand for? A. World Wildlife Food. B. World Wildlife Formation. C. World Wildlife Fund. D. World Website Fund. 22.How many species do we pay much attention to? A. 5 B. 8 C. 7 D. 9 23.What is the meaning of the world habitats in pharagraph 1? A. The place where animals or plants are normally found. B. The place where animals or plants can drink and sleep. C. The place where animals or plants can eat find their enemy. D. The place where animals can find and keep their body warm. 24.What can science help us in safeguarding endangered species? A. Find the way to kill all species easily. B. Lead and guide strategies and approaches. C. Discover another habitat of animal. D. Search for a food source for animals. 25.Which of the following is not stated in the passage? A. WWF safeguards hundreds of species around the world. B. WWF is known for acting on sound science. C. these above species need extra protection so as not to be extinct. D. All species are so fierce that scientists can’t take care of them. Choose the best option to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. 26. Dave and Judy are talking about Jane’s driving test. -Dave: "Did Jane pass her driving test?" -Judy: "________" A. No, she wasn't. B. Not at all. C. I hope not. D. I'm afraid not. 27. Peter is talking to a passer-by. - Peter: "Excuse me, can you tell me where I can catch a bus to London, please?" - Passer-by: "____________" A. Sorry, I'm new here myself. B. Sure, go ahead. C. OK. Here's your ticket. D. Yes, please. Choose the best option to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. 28. You must read the instructions. You won't know how to use this machine without reading them. A. You will know how to use this machine unless you read the instructions. B. Without reading the instructions, the use of this machine won't be known. C. Unless you read the instructions, you won't know how to use this machine. D. Reading the instructions, so you will know how to use this machine. 29. My parents are busy at work. However, they try to find time for their children. A. My parents are so busy at work that they cannot find time for their children. B. Busy at work as my parents are, they try to find time for their children. C. My parents are too busy at work to find time for their children. D. My friends rarely have time for their children because they are busy at work. Choose the word or phrase which best completes each sentence. 30.By the end of this year my father ________ in this company for 12 years. A. has been working B. will work C. will have been working D. will be working 31.The worker was _______ his boss expected, so he was offered a raise. A. more hard-working B. as hard-working than C. more hard-working than D. more hard-working as 32. Conservation is the protection of the _________ environment. A. nature B. natural C. naturally D.naturalize 33. In Britain it is ____________ for children to attend school between the ages of five and sixteen. A. enforced B. compulsory C. obliged D. made 34. We should take some measures .endangered animals. A. to protect B. to know C. to sell D. to enact 35.John is _______ only child in his family so his parents love him a lot. A. a B. an C. the D. no article 36. She applied ___________ the new post of training officer. A. for B. in C. on D. with 37. My form teacher is the person _________ advice I always ask for. A. who B. whom C. whose D. that 38. 'You got home late last night.' 'The Morgan insisted ________ for dinner.' A. on our staying B. for us to stay C. that we were staying D. about us staying 39. Students have to pay __________ fees when they attend public schools. A. teaching B. education C. learning D. tuition 40. They were late for work because their car _____ down. A. got B. put C. cut D. broke Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 41 to 50 BASKETBALL 1 Although he created the game of basketball at the YMCA in Springfield, Massachusetts, Dr. James A Naismith was a Canadian. Working as a physical education instructor at the International YMCA, now Springfield College, Dr. Naismith noticed a lack of interest in exercise among students during the wintertime. The new England winters were fierce, and the students balked at participating in outdoor activities. Naismith determined a fast-moving game that could be played indoors would fill a void after the baseball and football seasons had ended. 2 First, he attempted to adapt outdoor games such as soccer and rugby to indoor play, but he soon found them unsuitable for confined areas. Finally, he determined that he would have to invent a game. 3 In December of 1891, Dr. Naismith hung two old peach baskets at either end of the gymnasium at the school, and, using a soccer ball and nine players on each side, organized the first basketball game. The early rules allowed three points for each basket and made running with the ball violation. Every time a goal was made, someone had to climb a ladder to retrieve the ball. 4 Nevertheless, the game became popular. In less than a year, basketball was being played in both the United States and Canada. Five years later, a championship tournament was staged in New York City, which was won by the Brooklyn Central YMCA. 5 The teams had already been reduced to seven players, and five became standard in 1897 season. When basketball was introduced as a demonstration sport in the 1904 Olympic Games in St. Luis, it quickly spread throughout the world. In 1906, a metal hoop was used for the first time to replace the basket, but the name basketball has remained. (Source: Barron’s TOEFL PBT &iBT, by Pamela J. Sharpe, Ph.D) 41: What does this passage mainly discuss? A. Dr. James Naismith B.The development of basketball C. The YMCA athletic program D. The Olympic Games in St. Luis in 1904 42: Why did Naismith decide to invent basketball? A. He was tired of baseball and football B. He did not like soccer or rugby. C. He wanted his students to exercise during the winter. D. He could not convince his students to play indoors 43: The word "fierce" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to A. long B. boring C. extreme D. dark 44: Soccer and rugby are the example of ________. A. outdoor games B. old peach baskets C. indoor play D. confined areas 45: The word "them" in paragraph 2 refers to A. seasons B. areas C. indoors D. games 46: The word "staged" in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to A. replaced B. organized C. run D. remained 47: The author mentions all of the following as typical of the early game of basketball EXCEPT__________. A. nine players were on a team B. the ball had to be retrieved from the basket after each score C. three points were scored for every basket D. running with the ball was not a foul 48: The word in the LAST paragraph that means "lessened" is _______. A. became B. remained C. reduced D. introduced 49: In which paragraph does the author discuss the first basketball championship tournament? A. Paragraph 2 B. Paragraph 3 C. Paragraph 5 D. Paragraph 4 50: Which sentence is TRUE about the basketball game, according to the reading passage? A. The basketball game became popular before 1891. B. There were five players on each side in 1897. C. The name of basketball has been changed since 1906. D. There were nine players on each side in 1904 season. ----------- THE END ---------- 3. PRACTICE 3 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions Question 1::A. wanted B. stopped C. decided D. hated Question 2: A. pleasure B. tasting C. sleep D. subject Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 3: A. advance B. polo C. crossbar D. goalie Question 4: A. pollution B. computer C.currency D. Allowance Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 5: A basic knowledge of social studies, such as history and geography, are considereda basic part of the education of every child. A. basic B. history C. are D. child Question 6: Many young people lack skills, good education, and financial to settle in the urban areas where many jobs are found. A. lack B. finacial C. urban areas D. are found Question 7: Our brains are incredibly agile machines, and it’s hard to think of anything they do more efficient than recognize faces. A. are B. anything C. efficient D. recognize Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 8:You look angry. He kept you waiting, _______ ?. A. don’t you B. didn’t you C. doesn’t he D. didn’t he Question 9: Volunteers spend a lot of time_________the elderly in their neighborhood to settle their lives. A. help B. to help C. helping D. on helping Question 10: The more demanding the job is, ______ I like it. A. more B. most C.the more D. the most Question 11: John wanted to know ______ in my family. A. there were how many people B. how many people were there C. were there how many people D. how many people there were Question 12: Neil Armstrong, the first person_________on the moon, reported that the surface was fine and powdery. A. set foot B. to set foot C. setting foot D. that set foot Question 13: Tom is getting ever keener on doing research on ______. A. biology B. biological C. biologist D. biologically Question 14:Many plant and animal species are now on the_________ of extinction. A. danger B. border C. verge D. margin Question 15:Remember to bring with you your school certificate and letters of________from your teachers or your previous employers when you come to the interview. A. assignment B. invitation C. recommendation D. advertisement Question 16:The government has_______measures to promote the development of the economy. A. made B. taken C. carried D. Achieved Question 17: _______, he walked to the station. A. Despite being tired B. Although to be tired C. In spite being tired D. Despite tired Question 18: The government should________ family planning programmes to reduce overpopulation. A.carry on B. account for C. turn in D. carry out Question 19: I saw him hiding something in a_________bag. A. plastic small black B. small plastic black C. black small plastic D. small black plastic Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the italic word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 20:Water and fresh air are very necessary for every living thing. A. essential B. difficult C. expensive D. wasteful Question 21: Too many people were unemployed, andthe economy got into trouble. A. out of order B. out of work C. out of question D. out of sight Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the italic word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 22:He was so insubordinate that he lost his job within a week. A. fresh B. disobedient C. obedient D.understanding Question 23:Population growth rates vary among regions and even among countries within the same region. A. restrain B. remain unstable C. fluctuate D. stay unchangedMark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 24: Two friends Diana and Anne are talking about Anne‘s new blouse. Diana: -That blouse suits you perfectly, Anne. Anne: -______ A.Never mind. B.Don‘t mention it. C. Thank you. D.You‘re welcome. Question 25: Mary is talking to a porter in the hotel lobby. Porter: - Shall I help you with your suitcase?Mary: - ______ A. Not a chance. B.That‘s very kind of you. C. I can‘t agree more. D. What a pity! Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30 Teaching English as a foreign language can be a great way to travel the world and earn money at the same time. However, some graduates actually like the idea of (31) _____ a career in teaching English long-term, and there are numerous courses at various (32) _____ of teaching, from the fast-track TEFL to a diploma or masters. To find the right course a good place to start is TEFL.com - a website with lots of relevant information and helpful advice, including a comprehensive list of institutions in the UK offering TEFL courses. The site also offers a job search facility to assist qualified students (33) ______ finding work. When deciding which course to take, the best bet is to look at what your needs are. If you want a career in teaching English then definitely find one designed for that purpose, like (34)________ MA or diploma; but if you want to travel around the world, then do a shorter course which will supply you with teaching skills. Some countries, like Japan, will employ people without a teaching qualification as (35) _____ as the teacher is a native speaker of English. However, most countries do now expect a qualification.
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